None taken.
Second the war might be over but the conflict continue and it will continue until :
-Another war began.
Or Argentina just accepts things as they are, and have been for getting on for a couple of centuries, and changes its constitution by removing the rights asserted over the Malvinas.
The central logical problem with Argentina’s claim to the Malvinas / Falklands, as with all irredentist arguments, is that it stands up only if everybody accepts the arbitrarily selected point in time at which the irredentists claim their ownership began. That time is invariably the one most favourable to the irredentist position. Naturally it will rarely be accepted by the opposition.
If we look at the chronology of the Falklands, there are points at which various nations can claim entitlement.
http://www.naval-history.net/F13history.htm
http://www.globalsecurity.org/military/library/report/1987/CRD.htm
Irredentists of European origin in former European colonial possessions never want to take their arguments to their logical conclusion by going back to the first known ownership of the land, which is the native peoples in those colonies (As far as I can work out, the Falklands were not inhabited by anyone before Europeans, which destroys any claim based on ethnic or geographic connection with South America). The original occupants have the best irredentist claim to the land. The Incas have a better claim to the whole of Argentina than does anyone of European descent. After all, it’s only about 420 something years since Spain first landed there. The Incas were there first. Same situation in Australia with the Aborigines; America with their Indians; and Canada with their Indians.
The reason that the native peoples’ claims are ignored is because, rightly or wrongly, they were conquered or dominated by the invaders. They couldn’t hold their land. Which brings us to the concept of colonial ‘possessions’. As the term suggests, a possession is something possessed, or held, by a colonial power. Sooner or later, the world comes to accept that long possession equates to ownership in fact as well as acquiring possession in earlier international law by occupation.
Argentina declared independence from Spain in 1816. Britain has held the Falklands since 1833. Britain has held the Falklands continuously for the past 174 years of Argentina’s 191 years of existence.
The days of international law recognising acquisition of territory by military force and civilian occupation have long gone. Article 49 of the Geneva Convention on Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War http://www.unhchr.ch/html/menu3/b/92.htm , which came into force in 1950, makes it a war crime for an occupying power to remove civilians from occupied territory and or to import its own civilians. As a party to that Convention, the only way that Argentina can reclaim the Falklands in any practical sense is to commit war crimes.
Another major problem with Argentina’s claim is that it derives from Spain’s claim. As Argentina declared independence from Spain and fought a revolutionary war early in the 19th century to achieve that independence, Argentina cannot rely on Spain’s territorial claims when it had repudiated Spanish rule. Such a claim is as absurd as would be an American claim now that it owns Canada because Canada comprised British possessions at the time of the American War of Independence which repudiated British rule.
I don’t see that Argentina’s claim has any real foundation beyond national emotion, while Argentina is prohibited by international law from giving effect to its ambitions.