You are guilty of engaging in misnomering semantics here. Napalm was not outlawed in WWII, I’m not even sure if it is against the rules of land warfare today, but the US has chosen not to use it in any case after its controversial use in Vietnam. Your interpretation is clearly wrong since the treaty is meant to cover chemical weapons, which by your stilted definition covers virtually every explosive used. Napalm does not emit “gases.” They were talking about poison gases that caused asphyxiation, specifically mustard and chlorine gas, and I think that’s pretty apparent. And Napalm is not illegal as an “asphyxiating agent,” since asphyxiation can only come in a confined space, a tactic that continues today as the Russian airforce uses thermite bombs to burn the oxygen out of the air of caves in which guerrillas might be hiding in Chechnya, in order to suffocate them. Is that “chemical warfare” also? Napalm emits nothing of a gas. It is simply a device not covered by the treaty, as were none of the other available incendiary devices, which all deoxigenate the air by nature, yet were not expressly prohibited as of then.
And BTW, flamethrowers are also illegal as chemical weapons by your definition? Well then, you’ve just justified the US use of it even if it was ‘illegal,’ since the Germans and Japanese clearly used flamethrowers first!
And white phosphorus was used in Normandy? So what? The Germans used it, the Allies where not allowed too now? BTW, where are you getting your ‘20%’ statistic from?
Do you think there is a nice way of killing people in battle?
The above treaty also made unrestricted warefare against commercial ships a war crime, without giving the personel aboard a place for saftey. The US Navy blatantly used submarines against Japanese cargo ships. A US submarine targeted the Tsushima Maru an evacuation ship on August 21, 1944 killing 1484 civilians including 767 children. Was this a war crime? Damn right it was.
So, every other country could wage unrestricted undersea warfare with the exception of the United States? The treaty became null and void when one side (the Germans and Japanese) began unrestricted warfare. Were any German Kriegsmarine or Imperial Japanese Navy officers ever tried for violating this prohibition? No…
And if the sinking of the “Tsushima Maru,” then you have a long list of officers from all Allied and Axis navies to prosecute, so your focus one particular case is actually pretty bizarre, since the Japanese also killed numerous civilians, as did the Germans, Russians, British, and Italians.
I am really shcoked about Nickdf’s regards to the Phillipine-American War. Filipino’s were confined in large groups without due process or law the very defintion of a “concentration camp”…
You’re “shocked?” You’re wrong is what you are. You present no sources except Wilki, which, while useful, varies widely in its reliability. You also do this without providing any links.
Go ahead, give an accurate historical assessment of a US “concentration camp” in the Philippines! Again, semantics! And irregardless, there is nothing inherently illegal about having a “concentration camp” anyways…
BTW, your definition of “concentration camp” now applies to every armed village or city in the world with any defenses or walls. Well done troll. And LOL at:
“This war was one of extermination of a racially ‘inferior’ people.
Quotes: " ‘The Filipino is an incumbrance to be got rid of, unless he accepts the mandates of a purchasing and conquering power’”
Ridiculous!! You’re presenting hyperbolic opinion as fact. Who are you quoiting? Again, you provide no links. And to refer to that War as one of “extermination” is utterly laughable, since the US pretty much failed to “exterminate” the Filipino population apparently, who are generally pro-American to this day. Indeed, America could not have defeated the guerrillas without significant support of the native population. And I never argued that Americans weren’t racist, as was pretty much every other colonial power was at that time. Nor have I stated that the US Army did not do some horrifying things there, but the US Army also obviously did some positive things as well, to the point they were criticized as “weak” by their own press…
“The is no question that our men do “shoot N… (racial slur)” somewhat is the SPORTING SPIRIT, but that is war and their environments have rubbed off the thin veneer of civilization undoubtedly. They do not regard the shooting of Filipinos just as they would shooting of white troops. This is partly because they are “N…” and because they partly disperse them for their treacherous srevility…The soldiers feels they are fighting w/ savages and not w/ soldiers”
" They (the Filipinos) are “N…” and entitled to all the contempt and harsh treatment administered by white overloards"…that sounds a little like Nazi racial idealogy…???
So, what you are doing is cherry-picking a few letters (with grievous spelling errors I might add, which is rather dubious) and presenting them as a complete and total truth? Yeah, that’s historically valid. Perhaps you can compare them to all the wonderfully politically correct, nonracist letters written by soldiers in your home county?:rolleyes:
And what you refer to as “Nazi” ideology again shows your lack of education, since this was the typical racist vernacular and the concepts of “The White Man’s Burden” era of colonialism, there’s a difference. And the US, while not innocent, was far less harsh than many of its European contemporaries. Just look at the mess Africa is, especially the Congo. Was the US ever there? Compare the nation-states of Africa to the current Republic of the Philippines, and get back to me with one of your no doubt brilliant, completely unbiased and knowledgeable assessments…
Con’td