The 68th Anniversary of Soviet Aggression on Poland

No PUK we clearly know you politically biased poin.
Firstly the the events of the 1939 LOGICALLY could not be related with the 1944;)
So the reason of the lack of trust in Polish-Soviet relations befor the 1939 was not the “some action of the soviets”.But pure conflict of interests of both gov.
But if the Stalin and France CLEARLY inderstand the Danger of Nazy Germany in the 1938- then the Poles simply ignored and continie to believe the Nazy “never will attack”:wink:

Furthermore, the Soviets were coming not only to fight the nazis but they intended to subjugate the country they ‘liberated’ and install a puppet communist government. That is one of the reasons why they met with hostility. Not to mention the Soviet invasion of Poland 17th September 1939, just in case you had forgotten.

Soviet invasion to the Poland?
What do you mean - the western Ukraine? Was it Poland - do not tell us fary tells and do not anger the our ukrainian friends in here;)
It was a Ukrainian lands that were contemporary occuped by the Poland since the 1921 after the collapse of the Russian Imperia and lost of the polish-soviet war by bolshevics.
It’s not strange for you that the UPA fought in the “Poland” ?
And the fact the Soviets helped the POLISH communists to take the power after was- does it mean the Polish gov was the puppet?
I/m strongly doubt- the polish communist Gomulko enough hard suppressed the own poles and even organised the own deportation of ukrainians ( Operation Vistla) even not informing the Soviet side.

If the Soviets had defeated the nazis in the countries along the way to Germany and captured Berlin etc and then after the end of the war returned home without the intention of installing puppet governments in the countries that they had ‘liberated’, then they would have been hailed as heroes without any reservations, there would be no question of ‘anti-Soviet’ and we would not be having this discussion.

Perhaps, but this is just a part of true PUK.
Yo clearly know that not ONLY soviets has its zone of influence (i.e. to install the friendly gov) . In the conferences of Allies ( Tehrain, Yalta , Potsdam and ets.) THERE were a COMMON agreements for :WHOM,Where and HOW the the gov in the liberated states were established.
So if you have a questions - please?
If the Stalin allies would not presented Stalin the Eastern Europe- he could demand to withdraw the allies troops from Western Europe ( Franace, Greese, Italy where the communist resistence were too strong) and Asian colonies where the communits national forces rised in the power.
May be the Eastern Europe did not trouble them so much like the Comride Stalin;)
Anyway they ALL were responsible for the post-war division.

Further, the Warsaw Uprising would still have happened even if the army pushing the nazis back had been friendly and not intending to install a puppet government.
Also, the Warsaw Uprising would most probably have succeeded because it would have been properly supported by a friendly army.

So why they did not ask the “friendly army” for that?
Why they did not asked the Britain and USA?