-
But if industrial methods would have been available centuries ago, wouldn’t you think that some of the other countries would have used them? They often used whatever means were available at that time.
-
“Extermination of a race” is a bit difficult to define, since nazi germany didn’t actually try to destroy jews in the areas they didn’t control. Germany wanted to clear certain area from jews - wasn’t this exactly the same target as England, portugal, France and other countries had earlier? Isn’t this exactly the same as when America wanted to make Georgia “Cherokee-free”.
Of course history is full of “what if” - situations.
What if nazi plan to move all the jews to Madagaskar or any one of their several plans would have succeeded?
What if American plan to clear Georgia of Cherokees would have failed year after year - would that eventually resulted the same desperate solution that Germany faced? Documented and planned clearing of Georgia resulted 20%-50% of a cherokee race wiped out - and that was only moving them - during quite short period of time. It took nazis several years to start to reach those percentages.
I hope I’m not offending anyone. All corrections are welcomed. I’m not trying to play down holocaust - it was inexpressible event in the history. But if you look at the nations and their history, they all have their sins. Sadly history is full of races and tribes completely wiped out like Conestoga tribe in north America. But with or without industrial development, the same “cause and effect” has existed in history. In a way, it is not germany’s fault that industrial development happened during their era, had industrial development occured during the time when England was active against Jews, would that have made them pop-out from unfortunate history of anti-semitism - who knows.