Hello!
I would like to invite you to share the knowledge you have about the annexation by USSR the eastern part of Poland in 1939. Please also share your opinion.
Could you try to present firstly points why it was not justified, and after the points, that could justify (or rather explain) it. Since most of people here are so objective (as we found in another thread of this forum), please, regardless of your opinion try to come up with argument for both sides.
These are my rough ideas:
Unjustified:
[ul]
[li]The territory belonged to a sovereign state.[/li][li]USSR and Poland had none-aggression pact signed in 1932. It was broken by USSR in 1939.[/li][li]It was a sign of aggressive expansionist imperial advance.[/li][/ul]
Justified:
[ul]
[li]The territories in question were annexed during the Polish-Soviet war in 1920. The war was started by Poland[/li][li]The area was internationally (western allies, especially Britain) acknowledged in 1919, as belonging to the USSR. This is clear from the Curzon line proposal. [/li][li]The area was not ethnically Polish. Some enclaves of Polish population were present. At best there were 39% of Poles and it is after the extensive polish colonization during the 1920th.[/li][li]Geopolitically the area belonged to Russian empire and Russian (in it’s original term that includes nowadays Ukrainians, Belo-Russians and Russians)[/li][li]According to Soviet government Poland as a state seized to exist on 15 of September after the Polish government collapsed and therefore all the agreements were void. Therefore, as mentioned in the note to the Polish ambassador in Moscow, formally USSR did not break any rules by reclaiming the land.[/li][li]USSR was geopolitically focused on collecting the land it lost with the collapse of the Russian Empire[/li][/ul]
What would be your proposal? What have I missed?
I am sure Lancer44 has a lot to say! I better take my helmet on…
Remark: This thread is NOT about what happened after the territories were annexed. Please respect.