Bear with me. This is about WWII, not races of man:
Why have some European historians said that the origin of the Iranians is Central Asia instead of northern Iran, which is where all evidence points, and more likely because at the end of the last ice age is ewhen homo sapiens appeared? At that time, central Asia, the land European historians claim as the ancestral home of the Aryan (white?) race was covered with ice and virtually uninhabitable. Could it be because in 1833, an Oxford University professor used the term “Aryan” to describe a group of languages with common origins. Although he later admitted that parts of his theory were erroneous, the theory of an Aryan race was used by a group of romanticist writers and western historians in quest for an ancient identity.
The Germans, eyeing vast expanses of land in Central Asia, called themselves Aryans and cried for a return to the homeland. They used the Swastika, which, as a “wheel of Mithra (Sun/Fire)” used to be the arm of the Iranians since ancient times, as a Nazi symbol, to have an alibi to invade Russia.
Hitler’s motive, by all counts was for libesraum (living room) in eastern Europe. However, is it possible that this was only a precursor to his ideas of conquering Russia, and using the supposed ancestral home of the “Aryan” race in central Asia (unlikely) as an excuse?